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Today I did a presentation to the OpenSSF Vulnerability Management group that is working on EU CRA initiatives regarding a VDR proposal
A question was asked "Can a CSAF Security Advisory can contain 0 vulnerabilities and still be considered valid"?
I deferred to this group for an answer, as this is well beyond my CSAF knowledge. My only comment was that this would seem to change the semantics of what a Security Advisory represents. Was I correct?